Based on the observed negative relationship between the degree of central bank independence and average inflation rates in developed countries from 1962-1990, it can be definitively concluded that granting a central bank more independence will always cause a reduction in that country's inflation rate.
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An economist presents a scatter plot showing data for several developed nations. The vertical axis represents the average inflation rate from 1962-1990, and the horizontal axis represents a measure of how independent each nation's central bank was from political influence in the mid-1980s. The data points on the plot show a clear trend, starting from the upper-left area and moving towards the lower-right area. What is the most logical conclusion to draw from this specific data pattern?
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